Commonwealth Coat of Arms of Australia

Transport Safety Investigation Regulations 2003

Statutory Rules No. 158, 2003

made under the

Transport Safety Investigation Act 2003

Compilation No. 7

Compilation date: 13 August 2020

Includes amendments up to: F2020L00913

Registered: 1 September 2020

About this compilation

This compilation

This is a compilation of the Transport Safety Investigation Regulations 2003 that shows the text of the law as amended and in force on 13 August 2020 (the compilation date).

The notes at the end of this compilation (the endnotes) include information about amending laws and the amendment history of provisions of the compiled law.

Uncommenced amendments

The effect of uncommenced amendments is not shown in the text of the compiled law. Any uncommenced amendments affecting the law are accessible on the Legislation Register (www.legislation.gov.au). The details of amendments made up to, but not commenced at, the compilation date are underlined in the endnotes. For more information on any uncommenced amendments, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Application, saving and transitional provisions for provisions and amendments

If the operation of a provision or amendment of the compiled law is affected by an application, saving or transitional provision that is not included in this compilation, details are included in the endnotes.

Editorial changes

For more information about any editorial changes made in this compilation, see the endnotes.

Modifications

If the compiled law is modified by another law, the compiled law operates as modified but the modification does not amend the text of the law. Accordingly, this compilation does not show the text of the compiled law as modified. For more information on any modifications, see the series page on the Legislation Register for the compiled law.

Selfrepealing provisions

If a provision of the compiled law has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law, details are included in the endnotes.

 

 

 

Contents

Part 1—Preliminary

1.1  Name of Regulations

1.3  Definitions

Part 2—Aircraft operations

2.1  Application of Part 2

2.2  Definitions for Part 2

2.3  Immediately reportable matters (Act s 3)

2.4  Routine reportable matters (Act s 3)

2.5  Responsible persons (Act s 3)

2.5A  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

2.6  Written reports (Act s 19)

2.7  Nominated officials (Act s 20)

2.8  Reports to be given to staff member

2.9  OBR information (Act s 48)

Part 3—Marine operations

3.1  Application of Part 3

3.2  Definitions for Part 3

3.3  Immediately reportable matters (Act s 3)

3.4  Responsible persons (Act s 3)

3.4A  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

3.5  Written reports (Act s 19)

3.6  Nominated officials (Act s 20)

3.7  Reports to be given to staff member

3.8  OBR information (Act s 48)

Part 4—Rail transport

4.1  What Part applies to

4.2  Definitions for Part 4

4.3  Rail transport—immediately reportable matters

4.3A  Rail transport—routine reportable matters

4.4  Rail transport—responsible person

4.5  Rail transport—particulars for reports of reportable matters

4.6  Rail transport—nominated official for reportable matters

4.7  Rail transport—certain reports to be given to National Rail Safety Regulator

4.8  Rail transport—certain reports to be given to staff member

4.9  Rail transport—kinds of recordings that are not onboard recordings

Part 5—General

5.1  Delegation (Act ss 63B and 63C )

5.1A  Delegation by the Chief Executive Officer (Act s 63D)

5.2  Special investigators (Act s 63E)

5.2A  Functions of ATSB (Act s 12AA)

5.3  International obligations (Act s 12AD)

5.4  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

5.4A  Written reports (Act s 19)

5.5  Identity cards (Act s 29)

5.6  Fees for attending before ATSB (Act s 32)

5.7  Release of OBR information (Act s 51)

5.8  Release of restricted information (Act s 61)

5.9  Fees for attending coronial inquiry (Act s 67)

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Part 1Preliminary

 

1.1  Name of Regulations

  These Regulations are the Transport Safety Investigation Regulations 2003.

1.3  Definitions

Note: A number of expressions used in this instrument are defined in the Act, including the following:

(a) ATSB;

(b) immediately reportable matter;

(c) investigable matter;

(d) nominated official;

(e) reportable matter;

(f) responsible person;

(g) routine reportable matter;

(h) staff member;

(i) transport safety matter.

  In these Regulations:

Act means the Transport Safety Investigation Act 2003.

crew member, in relation to a transport vehicle, means a person who has operational duties on board the transport vehicle.

National Rail Safety Regulator: see regulation 4.2.

operator, in relation to a transport vehicle, means a person, organisation or enterprise operating, or offering to operate, the vehicle for the purposes of travel.

Rail Safety National Law: see regulation 4.2.

rail transport operator: see regulation 4.2.

serious damage, in relation to a transport vehicle, means:

 (a) damage that:

 (i) significantly affects the structural integrity, performance or operational characteristics of the transport vehicle; and

 (ii) requires major repair or replacement of the affected component or components of the transport vehicle; or

 (b) destruction of the transport vehicle.

serious injury means an injury that requires, or would usually require, admission to hospital within 7 days after the day when the injury is suffered.

Part 2Aircraft operations

 

2.1  Application of Part 2

 (1) Subject to subregulation (2), this Part applies only in relation to matters involving aircraft operations.

 (2) This Part (other than regulation 2.9) does not apply in relation to aircraft operations involving:

 (a) Australian defence aircraft; or

 (b) exempt foreign aircraft.

 (3) To avoid doubt, if a matter involves:

 (a) an aircraft (the first aircraft) that is involved in an aircraft operation (other than an aircraft operation mentioned in subregulation (2)); and

 (b) an aircraft that is not involved in such an operation;

subregulation (2) does not prevent the matter from being a reportable matter in relation to the first aircraft.

 (4) Subject to subregulation (5), in relation to a particular aircraft, this Part applies only in relation to matters occurring during the period:

 (a) beginning when the aircraft is being prepared for takeoff; and

 (b) ending when all passengers and crew members have disembarked after the flight.

 (5) This Part also applies in relation to a death or serious injury mentioned in paragraph 2.3(1)(a), if the death or serious injury occurs as a result of an occurrence occurring during the period mentioned in subregulation (4).

2.2  Definitions for Part 2

  In this Part:

aircraft system means a part of an aircraft that consists of an integral network of related and intercontrolled devices designed to perform a specific function.

Examples

An aircraft’s flight management system, hydraulic system, electrical system, flight guidance system and navigation system.

airprox means an occurrence in which 2 or more aircraft come into such close proximity that a threat to the safety of the aircraft exists or may exist, in airspace where the aircraft are not subject to an air traffic separation standard or where separation is a pilot responsibility.

air transport operation means a regular public transport operation or a charter operation.

approved flight envelope, in relation to an aircraft, means the operating limitations and limiting atmospheric conditions applying to the aircraft, as shown in the aircraft’s flight manual, cockpit placards or other operating documents approved by CASA or the appropriate authority of another country.

Examples

Limitations on the aircraft’s centre of gravity, or its minimum or maximum speed.

Australian Flight Information Region means the Australian Flight Information Region specified in the Designated Airspace Handbook produced by Airservices Australia, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations.

charter operation means an operation for the purpose of:

 (a) the carriage of passengers or cargo for hire or reward to or from any place, other than:

 (i) carriage in accordance with fixed schedules to and from fixed terminals; or

 (ii) carriage on limited category aircraft for adventure flights within the meaning of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998; or

 (b) the carriage, in accordance with fixed schedules to and from fixed terminals, of passengers or cargo or passengers and cargo in circumstances in which the accommodation in the aircraft is not available for use by persons generally.

controlled airspace means:

 (a) airspace determined to be a control zone under paragraph 5(1)(b) of the Airspace Regulations 2007; or

 (b) airspace determined to be a control area under paragraph 5(1)(c) of the Airspace Regulations 2007.

critical rejected takeoff, in relation to an aircraft, means a takeoff that is interrupted or prevented by a decision initiated either by the pilot involved or the air traffic service, after the aircraft has reached, or while it is approaching, takeoff speed on the runway.

flight crew member means a licensed crew member who has duties essential to the flight management of an aircraft.

fuel exhaustion, in relation to an aircraft, means the aircraft has exhausted its useable fuel.

fuel starvation, in relation to an aircraft, means an interruption to the fuel supply to the aircraft’s engines, although there is useable fuel on board the aircraft.

ICAO means the International Civil Aviation Organization referred to in the Convention on International Civil Aviation, done at Chicago on 7 December 1944.

minimum altitude means:

 (a) for aircraft operating in the Australian Flight Information Regionthe altitude determined under regulation 178 of the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988; or

 (b) for aircraft operating outside the Australian Flight Information Region, and in a place where a local standard is in force at the commencement of these Regulationsthe altitude specified in that standard, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations; or

 (c) for aircraft operating outside the areas mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b)the altitude specified in ICAO document 4444, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations.

nearcollision, in relation to an aircraft, means an occurrence in which the aircraft was required to manoeuvre to avoid a collision with another aircraft, or where an avoidance manoeuvre would have been appropriate.

predicted performance, in relation to a takeoff or initial climb of an aircraft, means the performance that the aircraft, or an aircraft of the same type and model, would be expected to achieve in the conditions applying at the time of takeoff, based on information in the aircraft flight manual or information published by the aircraft manufacturer.

redundant system means one of 2 or more systems for performing a task if either of the systems alone would be sufficient, in the absence of system failure, to perform the task.

regular public transport operation means an operation for the purpose of transporting persons generally, or transporting cargo for persons generally, for hire or reward in accordance with fixed schedules to and from fixed terminals over specific routes with or without intermediate stopping places between terminals.

runway incursion means any intrusion of an aircraft, vehicle, person, animal or object on the ground within a runway strip or helicopter landing site that creates a collision hazard or results in a reduction of safety for aircraft.

separation standard means the separation standard specified in:

 (a) for aircraft operating in the Australian Flight Information Regionthe Manual of Air Traffic Services produced by Airservices Australia and the Department of Defence, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations; or

 (b) for aircraft operating outside the Australian Flight Information Region, and in a place where a local standard is in force at the commencement of these Regulationsthat standard, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations; or

 (c) for aircraft operating outside the areas mentioned in paragraphs (a) and (b)ICAO document 4444, as in force at the commencement of these Regulations.

traffic collision avoidance system resolution advisory means manoeuvring advice given to a pilot by airborne collision avoidance system equipment to avoid conflict with another aircraft.

violation of controlled airspace means unauthorised entry of an aircraft into airspace for which clearance is required, or to which entry is prohibited.

2.3  Immediately reportable matters (Act s 3)

All aircraft operations

 (1) For the purposes of the definition of immediately reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following investigable matters, in relation to an aircraft operation (other than an aircraft operation mentioned in subregulation 2.1(2)), are prescribed:

 (a) subject to subregulation (2), the death of, or a serious injury to:

 (i) a person on board the aircraft or in contact with the aircraft or anything attached to the aircraft or anything that has become detached from the aircraft; or

 (ii) a person who has been directly exposed to jet blast;

 (b) the aircraft being missing;

 (c) the aircraft suffering serious damage, or the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the aircraft has suffered serious damage;

 (d) the aircraft being inaccessible and the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the aircraft has been seriously damaged;

 (e) breakdown of separation standards, being a failure to maintain a recognised separation standard (vertical, lateral or longitudinal) between aircraft that are being provided with an air traffic service separation service.

Note: This may result from air traffic service, pilot or other actions, and may occur even if only 1 of the aircraft involved is under control of an air traffic service.

 (2) For paragraph (1)(a), the death of, or a serious injury to, a person does not include:

 (a) death or serious injury resulting from natural causes (except to a flight crew member); or

 (b) death or serious injury that is intentionally selfinflicted; or

 (c) death or serious injury that is intentionally caused by another person; or

 (d) death or serious injury suffered by a stowaway in a part of the aircraft that is not usually accessible to crew members or passengers after takeoff; or

 (e) death occurring more than 30 days after the occurrence that caused the death, unless the death was caused by an injury that required admission to hospital within 30 days after the occurrence.

Air transport operations

 (3) For the purposes of the definition of immediately reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following investigable matters, in relation to an air transport operation (other than an aircraft operation mentioned in subregulation 2.1(2)), are prescribed:

 (a) airprox;

 (b) violation of controlled airspace;

 (c) a nearcollision involving aircraft manoeuvring on the ground;

 (d) an occurrence in which flight into terrain is narrowly avoided;

 (e) the rejection of a takeoff from a closed or occupied runway;

 (f) a takeoff from a closed or occupied runway with marginal separation from an obstacle or obstacles;

 (g) a landing on a closed or occupied runway;

 (h) a significant failure to achieve predicted performance during takeoff or initial climb;

 (i) a fire (even if subsequently extinguished), smoke, fumes or an explosion on or in any part of the aircraft;

 (j) an uncontained engine failure;

 (k) a mechanical failure resulting in the shutdown of an engine;

 (l) the use of any procedure for overcoming an emergency;

 (m) an event requiring the use of oxygen by a flight crew member;

 (n) malfunction of an aircraft system that seriously affects the operation of the aircraft;

 (o) a flight crew member becoming incapacitated during flight;

 (p) fuel exhaustion;

 (q) the aircraft’s supply of useable fuel becoming so low (whether or not as a result of fuel starvation) that the pilot declares an emergency in flight;

 (r) undershooting, overrunning or running off the side of a runway during takeoff or landing, or any other similar occurrence;

 (s) any of the following occurrences, if the occurrence causes difficulty controlling the aircraft:

 (i) a weather phenomenon;

 (ii) operation outside the aircraft’s approved envelope;

 (t) the failure of 2 or more related redundant systems for flight guidance and navigation;

 (u) serious damage to, or destruction of, any property outside the aircraft caused by contact with the aircraft or anything that has become detached from the aircraft.

2.4  Routine reportable matters (Act s 3)

Air transport operations

 (1) For the purposes of the definition of routine reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following investigable matters, in relation to an air transport operation (other than an aircraft operation mentioned in subregulation 2.1(2)), are prescribed:

 (a) an injury, other than a serious injury, to:

 (i) a person on board the aircraft or in contact with the aircraft or anything attached to the aircraft or anything that has become detached from the aircraft; or

 (ii) a person who has been directly exposed to jet blast;

 (b) the aircraft suffering damage that compromises or has the potential to compromise the safety of the flight but is not serious damage;

 (c) flight below the minimum altitude, except in accordance with a normal arrival or departure procedure;

 (d) a ground proximity warning system alert;

 (e) a critical rejected takeoff, except on a closed or occupied runway;

 (f) a runway incursion;

 (g) any of the following occurrences, if the occurrence compromises or has the potential to compromise the safety of the flight:

 (i) a failure to achieve predicted performance during takeoff or initial climb;

 (ii) malfunction of an aircraft system, if the malfunction does not seriously affect the operation of the aircraft;

 (iii) fuel starvation that does not require the declaration of an emergency;

Note: Aircraft systems include flight guidance and navigation systems.

 (h) any of the following occurrences, if the occurrence compromises or has the potential to compromise the safety of the flight but does not cause difficulty controlling the aircraft:

 (i) a weather phenomenon;

 (ii) operation outside the aircraft’s approved flight envelope;

 (i) failure or inadequacy of a facility used in connection with the air transport operation, such as:

 (i) a navigation or communication aid; or

 (ii) an air traffic control service or general operational service; or

 (iii) an airfield facility, including lighting or a manoeuvring, taxiing or takeoff surface;

 (j) misinterpretation by a flight crew member of information or instructions, including:

 (i) the incorrect setting of a transponder code; or

 (ii) flight on a level or route different to the level or route allocated for the flight; or

 (iii) the incorrect receipt or interpretation of a significant radio, telephone or electronic text message;

 (k) breakdown of coordination, being an occurrence in which traffic related information flow within the air traffic service system is late, incorrect, incomplete or absent;

 (l) failure of air traffic services to provide adequate traffic information to a pilot in relation to other aircraft;

Note: The information may have been incomplete, incorrect, late or absent.

 (m) a traffic collision avoidance system resolution advisory being given to the pilot of the aircraft;

 (n) an occurrence arising from the loading or carriage of passengers, cargo or fuel, such as:

 (i) the loading of an incorrect quantity of fuel, if the loading of the incorrect quantity is likely to have a significant effect on aircraft endurance, performance, balance or structural integrity; or

 (ii) the loading of an incorrect type of fuel or other essential fluid, or contaminated fuel or other essential fluid; or

 (iii) the incorrect loading of passengers, baggage or cargo, if the incorrect loading has a significant effect on the mass or balance of the aircraft; or

 (iv) the carriage of dangerous goods in contravention of Commonwealth, State or Territory legislation; or

 (v) the incorrect securing of cargo containers or significant items of cargo; or

 (vi) the incorrect stowage of baggage or cargo, if the incorrect stowage is likely to cause a hazard to the aircraft or its equipment or occupants, or to impede emergency evacuation; or

 (vii) a significant contamination of the aircraft structure, systems or equipment, arising from the carriage of baggage or cargo; or

 (viii) the presence of a violent or armed passenger;

 (o) a collision with an animal, including a bird.

Aircraft operations other than air transport operations

 (2) For the purposes of the definition of routine reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following investigable matters, in relation to an aircraft operation (other than an aircraft operation mentioned in subregulation 2.1(2) or an air transport operation), are prescribed:

 (a) an injury, other than a serious injury, to a person on board the aircraft;

 (b) a flight crew member becoming incapacitated while operating the aircraft;

 (c) airprox;

 (d) an occurrence in which flight into terrain is narrowly avoided;

 (e) the use of any procedure for overcoming an emergency;

 (f) an occurrence that results in difficulty controlling the aircraft, including any of the following occurrences:

 (i) an aircraft system failure;

 (ii) a weather phenomenon;

 (iii) operation outside the aircraft’s approved flight envelope;

 (g) fuel exhaustion;

 (h) the aircraft’s supply of useable fuel becoming so low (whether or not as a result of fuel starvation) that the safety of the aircraft is compromised;

 (i) a collision with an animal, including a bird, on a certified aerodrome.

2.5  Responsible persons (Act s 3)

  For the purposes of the definition of responsible person in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following persons are responsible persons in relation to reportable matters:

 (a) a crew member of the aircraft concerned;

 (b) the owner or operator of the aircraft;

 (c) a person performing an air traffic control service in relation to the aircraft;

 (d) a person performing a dedicated aerodrome rescue or firefighting service in relation to the aircraft;

 (e) a person who:

 (i) is licensed as an aircraft maintenance engineer under the Civil Aviation Regulations 1988 or the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998; and

 (ii) does any work in relation to the aircraft;

 (f) a member of the ground handling crew in relation to the aircraft;

 (g) a member of the staff of the Civil Aviation Safety Authority;

 (h) the operator of an aerodrome.

2.5A  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

 (1) This regulation is made for subsection 18(1) of the Act and applies to an immediately reportable matter of a kind referred to in regulation 2.3 (air transport operations).

 (2) The following particulars are prescribed:

 (a) the type, model, nationality, registration marks and flight number (if any) of the aircraft the subject of the immediately reportable matter;

 (b) the type of aircraft operation that the aircraft was engaged in at the time of the immediately reportable matter;

 (c) the name and contact details of the operator of the aircraft;

 (d) the nature of the immediately reportable matter;

 (e) a description of the damage to the aircraft or any other property;

 (f) a description of any dangerous goods on board the aircraft;

 (g) whether a person died, or was seriously injured, as a result of the immediately reportable matter;

 (h) where the immediately reportable matter occurred (including a description of the location, or the geographical coordinates);

 (i) the aircraft’s place of departure and destination;

 (j) the day and local time when the immediately reportable matter occurred;

 (k) a description of the following in relation to the immediately reportable matter:

 (i) what happened;

 (ii) how and why it happened.

 (3) When making the report, the responsible person must give the nominated official:

 (a) his or her name; and

 (b) a method of contacting the person that will enable the person to be promptly contacted for an inquiry into the matter.

Example

A telephone number or other form of electronic communication.

2.6  Written reports (Act s 19)

 (1) For subsections 19(1) and (4) of the Act and subject to subregulation (2), a report must contain as many of the following particulars as are within the knowledge of the person making the report:

 (a) the name and contact details of the person making the report;

 (b) the person’s role in relation to the aircraft concerned;

 (c) the type, model, nationality, registration marks and flight number (if any) of the aircraft;

 (d) the name of the owner of the aircraft;

 (e) the name and contact details of the operator of the aircraft;

 (f) if the aircraft was under hire when the reportable matter occurred, the name of the hirer;

 (g) the name and nationality of the pilot, and the type and licence number of the licence held by the pilot;

 (h) the name and nationality of each other flight crew member (if any), and the type and licence number of the licence held by each of them;

 (i) the day and local time when the reportable matter occurred;

 (j) if, when the reportable matter occurred, the aircraft was in flight:

 (i) the place where the flight started; and

 (ii) the place where the flight ended, or was intended to end; and

 (iii) the purpose of the flight;

 (k) unless the reportable matter occurred at an airport, the location of the aircraft immediately after the occurrence of the reportable matter, including the geographical coordinates of that location;

 (l) the number of persons on board the aircraft when the reportable matter occurred;

 (m) the nature of the reportable matter, including:

 (i) its outcome or effect on the flight of the aircraft; and

 (ii) the phase of the aircraft’s flight when the matter occurred; and

 (iii) the weather conditions; and

 (iv) the airspace designation; and

 (v) the altitude at which the matter occurred; and

 (vi) if the matter occurred at, or in relation to, an airport, the name of the airport, and if it occurred on, or in relation to, a runway, the runway number; and

 (vii) if the matter involved a collision with an animal, including a bird, the nature of the collision; and

 (viii) the causes of the occurrence (if known), including any human performance issues; and

 (ix) any safety action carried out to prevent a recurrence of the matter; and

 (x) the nature and extent of any damage to the aircraft;

 (n) the physical characteristics of the area where the reportable matter occurred (eg the terrain, vegetation cover, and existence and location of any buildings, runways or aerodromes);

 (o) the flight rules under which the aircraft was operating at the time of the reportable matter;

 (p) the type of aircraft operation the aircraft was engaged in at the time of the reportable matter;

 (q) if the matter resulted in a death or serious injury, and the aircraft carried an emergency locator transmitterwhether the emergency locator transmitter was fixed or portable and whether it was activated at the time the immediately reportable matter occurred;

 (r) if the aircraft’s pilot has died:

 (i) the pilot’s date of birth; and

 (ii) the pilot’s total flying hours on all aircraft and flying hours on the same type of aircraft;

 (s) if any crew members have died or been seriously injured as a result of the reportable matter, how many, and their names and nationalities;

 (t) if any passengers have died or been seriously injured as a result of the reportable matter, how many, and their names and nationalities;

 (u) if any other persons have died or been seriously injured as a result of the reportable matter, how many, and their names and nationalities.

 (2) For subsections 19(1) and (4) of the Act, a report that is only for a matter mentioned in paragraph 2.4(1)(o) or (2)(i) (a collision with an animal, including a bird) must contain as many of the following particulars as are within the knowledge of the person making the report:

 (a) the name and contact details of the person making the report;

 (b) the day and local time when the reportable matter occurred;

 (c) the nature of the reportable matter, including:

 (i) if the matter occurred at, or in relation to, an airport, the name of the airport, and if it occurred on, or in relation to, a runway, the runway number; and

 (ii) the nature and extent of any damage to the aircraft;

 (d) any other information that the person making the report considers appropriate.

2.7  Nominated officials (Act s 20)

  For the purposes of section 20 of the Act, the following persons are nominated officials:

 (a) a staff member;

 (b) a member of the staff of the Australian Maritime Safety Authority.

Note: For the meaning of staff member in paragraph (a), see subsection 3(1) of the Act.

2.8  Reports to be given to staff member

 (1) Subject to subregulation (2), if a report under section 18 or 19 of the Act is given to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 2.7(b), the nominated official must, as soon as is practicable, pass on the report to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 2.7(a).

 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the nominated official who receives the report under section 18 or 19 of the Act believes, on reasonable grounds, that a responsible person has already given, or will give, a report under that section to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 2.7(a).

2.9  OBR information (Act s 48)

  For the purposes of section 48 of the Act, a recording is not an onboard recording for the purposes of the Act if the recording is:

 (a) an oral communication recorded by an air traffic service or a certified airground radio service for the purpose of directing or monitoring the progress of an aircraft; or

 (b) an oral communication recorded by the Australian Maritime Safety Authority.

Part 3Marine operations

 

3.1  Application of Part 3

 (1) Subject to subregulation (2), this Part applies only in relation to matters involving marine operations.

 (2) This Part (other than regulation 3.8) does not apply in relation to marine operations involving:

 (a) trading ships on intrastate voyages; or

 (b) Australian fishing vessels on domestic voyages; or

 (c) fishing fleet support vessels on domestic voyages; or

 (d) inland waterways vessels; or

 (e) pleasure craft; or

 (f) offshore industry mobile units that are fixed to the seabed; or

 (g) Australian defence ships; or

 (h) exempt foreign ships.

 (3) To avoid doubt, if a matter involves:

 (a) a ship (the first ship) that is involved in a marine operation (other than a marine operation mentioned in subregulation (2)); and

 (b) a ship that is not involved in such an operation;

subregulation (2) does not prevent the matter from being a reportable matter in relation to the first ship.

 (4) Subject to subregulation (5), in relation to a particular ship, this Part applies only in relation to matters occurring during the period:

 (a) beginning when the first person to board the ship for the purpose of performing duties as a crew member does so; and

 (b) ending when the last crew member to disembark from the ship does so.

 (5) This Part also applies in relation to a death or serious injury mentioned in paragraph 3.3(1)(a) if the death or serious injury occurs as a result of an occurrence occurring during the period mentioned in subregulation (4).

3.2  Definitions for Part 3

  In this Part:

Australian coastal sea means:

 (a) the territorial sea of Australia; and

 (b) the sea on the landward side of the territorial sea of Australia that is not within the limits of a State or Territory.

Commonwealth ship means a ship:

 (a) that is owned by the Commonwealth or a Commonwealth authority; or

 (b) the beneficial interest in which is vested in the Commonwealth or a Commonwealth authority; or

 (c) that is leased to, or in the exclusive possession of, the Commonwealth or a Commonwealth authority.

disabled, in relation to a ship, means that:

 (a) the ship is unable, for a period longer than 12 hours, to proceed under its own power; or

 (b) the ship is unable to proceed under its own power for a shorter period and has taken on board a towline from another ship to be towed to a place of safety.

domestic voyage, in relation to a ship, means:

 (a) an interstate voyage by the ship; or

 (b) an intrastate voyage by the ship; or

 (c) if the ship is an Australian fishing vessel that is regularly engaged in making voyages from a port or ports in Queenslanda voyage, beginning at a port in Queensland and ending at the same port or another port in Queensland, in the course of which the ship, as an incidental part of its fishing operations on the voyage, calls at a port or ports in Papua New Guinea, but does not call at:

 (i) any other port outside Australia; or

 (ii) a place in the waters of the sea above the continental shelf of a country other than Australia.

fishing fleet support vessel means a ship (other than a Commonwealth ship or an inland waterways vessel) that is used wholly or primarily to support the fishing operations of an Australian fishing vessel or vessels, including being used for any of the following purposes:

 (a) storing and transporting fish taken, caught or captured by the fishing vessel;

 (b) providing food, fuel or other supplies to the fishing vessel while it is engaged in fishing operations;

 (c) transporting crew members to and from the fishing vessel while it is engaged in fishing operations.

fishing operations means:

 (a) taking, catching or capturing fish for trading or manufacturing purposes; or

 (b) processing or carrying fish that are taken, caught or captured.

fishing vessel means a ship (other than a Commonwealth ship or an inland waterways vessel) that is used wholly or principally for fishing operations.

inland waterways vessel means a ship (other than a Commonwealth ship) that is used, or intended to be used, wholly in waters other than waters of the sea.

interstate voyage, in relation to a ship, means a voyage (other than an overseas voyage) in the course of which the ship travels between:

 (a) at least 1 port in a State and at least 1 port in another State; or

 (b) at least 1 port in a State and at least 1 port in a Territory; or

 (c) at least 1 port in a Territory and at least 1 port in another Territory.

intrastate voyage, in relation to a ship, means a voyage (other than an overseas voyage or an interstate voyage) in the course of which the ship:

 (a) travels between ports within the same State; or

 (b) leaves a port in a State and returns to the same port; or

 (c) travels between ports within the same Territory; or

 (d) leaves a port in a Territory and returns to the same port.

offshore industry mobile unit means:

 (a) a vessel that is used, or intended to be used, wholly or primarily in, or in any operations or activities associated with or incidental to, exploring or exploiting the natural resources of any or all of the following:

 (i) the continental shelf of Australia;

 (ii) the seabed of the Australian coastal sea;

 (iii) the subsoil of that seabed;

  by drilling the seabed or its subsoil, or obtaining substantial quantities of material from the seabed or its subsoil, with equipment that is on, or forms part of, the vessel; or

 (b) a structure (other than a vessel) that:

 (i) is able to float or be floated; and

 (ii) is able to move or be moved as an entity from one place to another; and

 (iii) is used, or intended to be used, wholly or primarily in, or in any operations or activities associated with or incidental to, exploring or exploiting the natural resources of any or all of the following:

 (A) the continental shelf of Australia;

 (B) the seabed of the Australian coastal sea;

 (C) the subsoil of that seabed;

  by drilling the seabed or its subsoil, or obtaining substantial quantities of material from the seabed or its subsoil, with equipment that is on, or forms part of, the structure; or

 (c) a barge or similar vessel that:

 (i) is fitted with living quarters for more than 12 persons; and

 (ii) is used, or intended to be used, wholly or primarily in connection with the construction, maintenance or repair of offshore industry fixed structures.

overseas voyage, in relation to a ship, means a voyage (other than a voyage mentioned in paragraph (c) of the definition of domestic voyage) in the course of which the ship travels between:

 (a) at least 1 port in Australia and a port outside Australia; or

 (b) at least 1 port in Australia and a place in the waters of the sea above the continental shelf of a country other than Australia; or

 (c) a port outside Australia and a place in the waters of the sea above the continental shelf of Australia; or

 (d) a place in the waters of the sea above the continental shelf of Australia and a place in the waters of the sea above the continental shelf of a country other than Australia.

pilot means a person who does not belong to, but has the conduct of, a ship.

pleasure craft means a ship (other than a Commonwealth ship or an inland waterways vessel) that is used, or intended to be used, wholly for recreational or sporting activities (whether or not the ship is let, or intended to be let, for hire).

trading ship means a ship (other than a Commonwealth ship, fishing vessel, fishing fleet support vessel or offshore industry mobile unit) that is used, or intended to be used, for, or in connection with, any business or commercial activity, and includes a ship that is used, or intended to be used, wholly or principally for:

 (a) carrying passengers or cargo for hire or reward; or

 (b) providing services to ships, whether for reward or otherwise.

3.3  Immediately reportable matters (Act s 3)

 (1) For the purposes of the definition of immediately reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following investigable matters, in relation to a marine operation (other than a marine operation mentioned in subregulation 3.1(2)), are prescribed:

 (a) subject to subregulation (2), the death of, or a serious injury to, a person on board the ship concerned or in contact with the ship or anything attached to the ship or anything that has become detached from the ship;

 (b) the ship being lost, presumed lost or abandoned;

 (c) the ship suffering serious damage, or the existence of reasonable grounds for believing that the ship has suffered serious damage;

 (d) a fire (even if subsequently extinguished), smoke, fumes or an explosion on or in any part of the ship;

 (e) the loss of a person from the ship;

 (f) the ship being stranded or disabled;

 (g) the ship being involved in a collision;

 (h) the ship nearly being stranded or involved in a collision;

 (i) contact between the ship and another object, including a wharf or buoy, resulting in the other object being seriously damaged or destroyed;

 (j) the ship suffering a significant loss of stability to the extent that the safety of the ship is, or could be, seriously endangered;

 (k) any other matter in relation to the operation of the ship that a reasonable person would consider seriously endangers, or, if not corrected, would seriously endanger, the safety of the ship, its occupants or any other person.

 (2) For paragraph (1)(a), the death of, or a serious injury to, a person does not include:

 (a) death or serious injury resulting from natural causes (except to a person who has duties essential to the safety of the ship); or

 (b) death or serious injury that is intentionally selfinflicted; or

 (c) death or serious injury that is intentionally caused by another person; or

 (d) death or serious injury suffered by a stowaway in a part of the ship that is not usually accessible to crew members or passengers after departure; or

 (e) death occurring more than 30 days after the occurrence that caused the death, unless the death was caused by an injury that required admission to hospital within 30 days after the occurrence.

3.4  Responsible persons (Act s 3)

  For the purposes of the definition of responsible person in subsection 3(1) of the Act, the following persons are responsible persons in relation to reportable matters:

 (a) the master of the ship, or the person in charge of the ship;

 (b) the owner or operator of the ship;

 (c) an agent of the owner or operator of the ship;

 (d) a pilot who has duties on board the ship.

3.4A  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

 (1) This regulation is made for subsection 18(1) of the Act and applies to an immediately reportable matter of a kind referred to in regulation 3.3 (marine operations).

 (2) The particulars specified by Form MO–31/14 of the Marine Orders, Part 31: Ship surveys and certification, Issue 6, Order No. 6 of 2006, as in force from time to time, are prescribed.

3.5  Written reports (Act s 19)

  For subsections 19(1) and (4) of the Act, the particulars specified by Form MO–31/15 of the Marine Orders, Part 31: Ship surveys and certification, Issue 6, Order No. 6 of 2006, as in force from time to time, are prescribed.

3.6  Nominated officials (Act s 20)

  For the purposes of section 20 of the Act, the following persons are nominated officials:

 (a) a staff member;

 (b) a member of the staff of the Australian Maritime Safety Authority.

Note: For the meaning of staff member in paragraph (a), see subsection 3(1) of the Act.

3.7  Reports to be given to staff member

 (1) Subject to subregulation (2), if a report under section 18 or 19 of the Act is given to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 3.6(b), the nominated official must, as soon as is practicable, pass on the report to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 3.6(a).

 (2) Subregulation (1) does not apply if the nominated official who receives the report under section 18 or 19 of the Act believes, on reasonable grounds, that a responsible person has already given, or will give, a report under that section to a nominated official mentioned in paragraph 3.6(a).

3.8  OBR information (Act s 48)

  For the purposes of section 48 of the Act, a recording is not an onboard recording for the purposes of the Act if the recording is:

 (a) an oral communication recorded by a ship reporting system or a marine vessel traffic control system for the purpose of directing or monitoring the progress of a ship; or

 (b) an oral communication recorded by the Australian Maritime Safety Authority.

Part 4Rail transport

 

4.1  What Part applies to

  This Part applies to an investigable matter if:

 (a) it is a matter over which the ATSB has jurisdiction; and

 (b) the Rail Safety National Law applies to the railway where the matter happened.

4.2  Definitions for Part 4

  In this instrument:

National Rail Safety Regulator means the National Rail Safety Regulator, or an Acting National Rail Safety Regulator, appointed under the Rail Safety National Law.

Rail Safety National Law means:

 (a) the Rail Safety National Law set out in Schedule 1 to the Rail Safety National Law (South Australia) Act 2012; or

 (b) a law of a State or Territory that corresponds to that law; or

 (c) a regulation made under a law mentioned in paragraph (a) or (b).

Note: For paragraph (c), in 2019, these regulations were known as the Rail Safety National Law National Regulations.

rail transport operator has the meaning given by subsection 4(1) of the Rail Safety National Law.

4.3  Rail transport—immediately reportable matters

  For the purposes of the definition of immediately reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, investigable matters that are Category A notifiable occurrences, within the meaning of the Rail Safety National Law, as in force from time to time, are prescribed.

Note: For what is a Category A notifiable occurrence, see paragraph 57(1)(a) of the Rail Safety National Law National Regulations.

4.3A  Rail transport—routine reportable matters

  For the purposes of the definition of routine reportable matter in subsection 3(1) of the Act, investigable matters that are Category B notifiable occurrences, within the meaning of the Rail Safety National Law, as in force from time to time, are prescribed.

Note: For what is a Category B notifiable occurrence, see paragraph 57(1)(b) of the Rail Safety National Law National Regulations.

4.4  Rail transport—responsible person

 (1) This regulation is made for subsection 3(1) of the Act.

 (2) The following persons are responsible persons in relation to reportable matters:

 (a) the rail transport operator, or an employee of the operator, of the rail infrastructure or rolling stock that is involved in the reportable matter;

 (b) the crew member who is in control of the rail vehicle when the rail vehicle is involved in the reportable matter.

4.5  Rail transport—particulars for reports of reportable matters

 (1) For the purposes of sections 18 and 19 of the Act, the following particulars are prescribed in relation to a report:

 (a) if information is required to be provided under the Rail Safety National Law, as in force on 1 July 2019, for the purpose of providing the report to the National Rail Safety Regulator about a notifiable occurrence—the information so required;

 (b) if information is not so required—the particulars set out in subregulation (2).

 (2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), the particulars are the following:

 (a) the name, contact details and role of the responsible person making the report;

 (b) identifying details of the rail vehicle;

 (c) the name and contact details of the owner of the rail vehicle;

 (d) the name and contact details of the rail transport operator of the rail vehicle;

 (e) if the rail vehicle was under hire when the reportable matter occurred—the name and contact details of the hirer;

 (f) the name and contact details of the driver of the rail vehicle;

 (g) the place where the reportable matter occurred;

 (h) the day and local time when the reportable matter occurred;

 (i) if anyone died or was seriously injured as a result of the reportable matter:

 (i) for a written report—the names of those persons; and

 (ii) the number of those persons who were crew members; and

 (iii) the number of those persons who were passengers; and

 (iv) the number of other persons;

 (j) the nature of the reportable matter, including a brief description of what happened;

 (k) a general statement of the probable cause of the reportable matter (operational or technical problems, or rail vehicle, track or other infrastructure defects, for example).

4.6  Rail transport—nominated official for reportable matters

  For the purposes of subsection 20(1) of the Act:

 (a) the following are the nominated officials in relation to immediately reportable matters reported under section 18 of the Act:

 (i) the National Rail Safety Regulator;

 (ii) a staff member; and

 (b) the National Rail Safety Regulator is the nominated official in relation to routine reportable matters and immediately reportable matters reported under section 19 of the Act.

4.7  Rail transport—certain reports to be given to National Rail Safety Regulator

  If a responsible person gives a report to a staff member under section 18 of the Act, the staff member may, as soon as practicable after receiving the report, give the report to the National Rail Safety Regulator.

4.8  Rail transport—certain reports to be given to staff member

  If a responsible person gives a report to the National Rail Safety Regulator under section 18 or 19 of the Act, the Regulator may, as soon as practicable after receiving the report, give the report to a staff member.

4.9  Rail transport—kinds of recordings that are not onboard recordings

 (1) This regulation is made for subsection 48(3) of the Act.

 (2) A recording of oral communications made by a rail traffic control service provider, for the purpose of directing or monitoring the progress of a rail vehicle, is not an OBR for the purposes of the Act.

Part 5General

 

5.1  Delegation (Act ss 63B and 63C )

  For subsections 63B(2) and 63C(5) of the Act:

 (a) to be delegated powers under the Act, a person must satisfy at least one of the following criteria:

 (i) the person must have experience or technical expertise in relation to the relevant mode of transport and, in particular, the transport vehicle or infrastructure involved in, or associated with, matters being investigated;

 (ii) the person must have safety investigation experience or safety investigation qualifications;

 (iii) the person’s occupation must be in the relevant transport industry;

 (iv) the person must have experience or technical expertise relevant to the matter being investigated; and

 (b) if the power to be delegated is a power under Division 2 or 3 of Part 5 of the Act, the person must also have received appropriate training and briefing.

5.1A  Delegation by the Chief Executive Officer (Act s 63D)

  For subsection 63D(3) of the Act, knowledge of, and experience in implementing, the requirements of the Financial Management and Accountability Act 1997 and the Public Service Act 1999 are prescribed as criteria.

5.2  Special investigators (Act s 63E)

  For section 63E of the Act, a person must satisfy at least one of the criteria mentioned in paragraph 5.1(a).

5.2A  Functions of ATSB (Act s 12AA)

  For paragraph 12AA(1)(a) of the Act, the following safety information is prescribed:

 (a) information obtained or generated under the REPCON scheme established under section 7 of the Transport Safety Investigation (Voluntary and Confidential Reporting Scheme) Regulation 2012;

 (b) information obtained or generated under Subpart 13.K of Part 13 of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998.

5.3  International obligations (Act s 12AD)

 (1) For subsections 12AD(1) and (2) of the Act, the following international agreements are identified:

 (a) Articles 26, 37 and 38 of the Convention on International Civil Aviation, done at Chicago on 7 December 1944, in so far as those Articles relate to aviation safety investigation, and Annex 13 to that Convention;

 (b) Chapter 1, Regulation 21 of the Annex to the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, done at London on 1 November 1974;

 (c) Article 23 of the International Convention on Load Lines, done at London on 5 April 1966;

 (d) the Treaty between Australia and the Democratic Republic of TimorLeste Establishing their Maritime Boundaries in the Timor Sea, done at New York on 6 March 2018;

 (e) Article 94(7) of the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, done at Montego Bay on 10 December 1982.

 (2) For subsection 12AD(3) of the Act, the Code for the Investigation of Marine Casualties and Incidents, adopted by resolution of the Assembly of the International Maritime Organization, is identified.

5.4  Immediate reports (Act s 18)

  If a responsible person has knowledge of an immediately reportable matter, the person must report it to a nominated official as soon as is reasonably practicable by telephone or, if telephone communication is not reasonably available, by another form of telecommunication or radio communication.

5.4A  Written reports (Act s 19)

  For subsection 19(4) of the Act, the following means are prescribed:

 (a) post;

 (b) facsimile;

 (c) email;

 (d) electronic lodgement using the Internet.

5.5  Identity cards (Act s 29)

  For paragraph 29(2)(a) of the Act, an identity card issued to a person must be in a form that sets out the following information:

 (a) the person’s name;

 (b) if the person is an employee of a Department or Agencythe name of the Department or Agency;

 (c) if the person is a special investigatorthat fact;

 (d) the powers that have been delegated to the person under section 13 of the Act;

 (e) the identity card number;

 (f) the expiry date of the identity card;

 (g) instructions for the return of the identity card if found.

5.6  Fees for attending before ATSB (Act s 32)

 (1) For the purposes of subsection 32(7) of the Act, a person who attends before the ATSB in accordance with a requirement under subsection 32(1) of the Act is entitled to be paid fees and allowances in accordance with this regulation.

 (2) If the person is required to attend because of his or her professional, scientific or other special skill or knowledge, the person is entitled to be paid the following amount of fees:

 (a) if the person is remunerated in his or her occupation by wages, salary or feesan amount equal to the amount of wages, salary or fees lost because of his or her attendance, up to a maximum amount of $1 000 for each day on which wages, salary or fees are lost because of the attendance;

 (b) in any other case:

 (i) $500 for each full day of attendance; and

 (ii) $66.67 for each hour, or part of an hour, of attendance on each day on which the person is not required to attend for the full day, up to a maximum of $500.

 (3) If the person is required to attend for a reason other than because of his or her professional, scientific or other special skill or knowledge, the person is entitled to be paid the following amount of fees:

 (a) if the person is remunerated in his or her occupation by wages, salary or feesan amount equal to the amount of wages, salary or fees lost because of his or her attendance, up to a maximum amount of $1 000 for each day on which wages, salary or fees are lost because of the attendance;

 (b) in any other case:

 (i) $100 for each full day of attendance; and

 (ii) $13.33 for each hour, or part of an hour, of attendance on each day on which the person is not required to attend for the full day, up to a maximum of $100.

 (4) Subject to subregulations (5) and (6), the person is also entitled to be paid reasonable allowances for:

 (a) transport between the person’s usual place of residence and the place where he or she attends before the ATSB; and

 (b) if the person is required to be absent overnight from his or her usual place of residencemeals and accommodation.

 (5) For paragraph (4)(b), in determining a reasonable allowance for meals and accommodation, the Chief Commissioner must have regard to the rates (if any) determined from time to time for public service employees by the Department of Education, Employment and Workplace Relations.

 (6) A person is entitled to be paid an allowance under subregulation (4) only if, before booking his or her transport and accommodation, the person seeks approval from the Chief Commissioner for the travel to attend before the ATSB.

5.7  Release of OBR information (Act s 51)

  For the purposes of subsection 51(2) of the Act, the ATSB may disclose to any person OBR information that is, or contains, personal information only if the ATSB is required to do so by an international agreement mentioned in regulation 5.3.

5.8  Release of restricted information (Act s 61)

 (1) For the purposes of subsection 61(2) of the Act and subject to subregulation (2), the ATSB may disclose to any person restricted information that is, or contains, personal information only if the ATSB is required to do so by an international agreement mentioned in regulation 5.3.

 (2) For the purposes of subsection 61(2) of the Act, the ATSB may disclose to a relevant body restricted information that is, or contains, personal information if:

 (a) the restricted information does not include:

 (i) a copy or record of a statement (oral or written) obtained from any person by a staff member in the course of an investigation; or

 (ii) information contained in a document that is produced under paragraph 32(1)(b), 36(3)(a) or 36(4)(a) of the Act; or

 (iii) information or records mentioned in paragraph (i), (j) or (k) of the definition of restricted information in subsection 3(1) of the Act; and

 (b) the restricted information is provided solely for the purpose of:

 (i) transport safety data sharing; or

 (ii) reporting or investigation of a transport safety matter; or

 (iii) conducting a coronial inquiry; and

 (c) the restricted information will help the relevant body to carry out a statutory obligation.

Note: See the Transport Safety Investigation (Voluntary and Confidential Reporting Scheme) Regulation 2012 for disclosure of information mentioned in subparagraph (a)(iii).

 (3) In this regulation:

relevant body has the meaning given by section 45 of the Act.

5.9  Fees for attending coronial inquiry (Act s 67)

 (1) For the purposes of subsection 67(2) of the Act and subject to subregulation (2), if a staff member attends a coronial inquiry, the State or Territory concerned is liable to pay to the Commonwealth a fee equal to the sum of:

 (a) the staff member’s salary for the period of his or her attendance at, and any necessary travel to and from, the inquiry; and

 (b) any reasonable costs incurred by the staff member and payable by the Commonwealth for transport between the staff member’s usual place of residence and the place where he or she attends the inquiry; and

 (c) if the staff member is required to be absent overnight from his or her usual place of residenceany reasonable costs incurred by the staff member and payable by the Commonwealth for meals and accommodation; and

 (d) if:

 (i) the Commonwealth incurs any legal expenses in relation to the attendance, including for the provision of legal representation at the inquiry; and

 (ii) the Chief Commissioner is satisfied that it is appropriate to seek reimbursement for those expenses from the State or Territory concerned;

  the amount of those expenses.

 (2) The maximum fee payable to the Commonwealth under paragraph (1)(a) in respect of a staff member’s salary is:

 (a) $1 000 for each full day of attendance; or

 (b) $133.33 for each hour, or part of an hour, of attendance on each day on which the person is not required to attend for the full day, up to a maximum of $1 000.

 (3) A fee under subregulation (1) must be paid within 30 days after the day of the inquiry.

Endnotes

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

The endnotes provide information about this compilation and the compiled law.

The following endnotes are included in every compilation:

Endnote 1—About the endnotes

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

Endnote 3—Legislation history

Endnote 4—Amendment history

Abbreviation key—Endnote 2

The abbreviation key sets out abbreviations that may be used in the endnotes.

Legislation history and amendment history—Endnotes 3 and 4

Amending laws are annotated in the legislation history and amendment history.

The legislation history in endnote 3 provides information about each law that has amended (or will amend) the compiled law. The information includes commencement details for amending laws and details of any application, saving or transitional provisions that are not included in this compilation.

The amendment history in endnote 4 provides information about amendments at the provision (generally section or equivalent) level. It also includes information about any provision of the compiled law that has been repealed in accordance with a provision of the law.

Editorial changes

The Legislation Act 2003 authorises First Parliamentary Counsel to make editorial and presentational changes to a compiled law in preparing a compilation of the law for registration. The changes must not change the effect of the law. Editorial changes take effect from the compilation registration date.

If the compilation includes editorial changes, the endnotes include a brief outline of the changes in general terms. Full details of any changes can be obtained from the Office of Parliamentary Counsel.

Misdescribed amendments

A misdescribed amendment is an amendment that does not accurately describe the amendment to be made. If, despite the misdescription, the amendment can be given effect as intended, the amendment is incorporated into the compiled law and the abbreviation “(md)” added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

If a misdescribed amendment cannot be given effect as intended, the abbreviation “(md not incorp)” is added to the details of the amendment included in the amendment history.

 

Endnote 2—Abbreviation key

 

ad = added or inserted

o = order(s)

am = amended

Ord = Ordinance

amdt = amendment

orig = original

c = clause(s)

par = paragraph(s)/subparagraph(s)

C[x] = Compilation No. x

/subsubparagraph(s)

Ch = Chapter(s)

pres = present

def = definition(s)

prev = previous

Dict = Dictionary

(prev…) = previously

disallowed = disallowed by Parliament

Pt = Part(s)

Div = Division(s)

r = regulation(s)/rule(s)

ed = editorial change

reloc = relocated

exp = expires/expired or ceases/ceased to have

renum = renumbered

effect

rep = repealed

F = Federal Register of Legislation

rs = repealed and substituted

gaz = gazette

s = section(s)/subsection(s)

LA = Legislation Act 2003

Sch = Schedule(s)

LIA = Legislative Instruments Act 2003

Sdiv = Subdivision(s)

(md) = misdescribed amendment can be given

SLI = Select Legislative Instrument

effect

SR = Statutory Rules

(md not incorp) = misdescribed amendment

SubCh = SubChapter(s)

cannot be given effect

SubPt = Subpart(s)

mod = modified/modification

underlining = whole or part not

No. = Number(s)

commenced or to be commenced

 

Endnote 3—Legislation history

 

Number and year

FRLI registration or gazettal

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

2003 No. 158

26 June 2003

1 July 2003 (r 1.2)

 

2009 No. 149

25 June 2009 (F2009L02504)

1 July 2009 (r 2)

2012 No. 263

28 Nov 2012 (F2012L02278)

20 Jan 2013 (s 2)

2012 No. 264

28 Nov 2012 (F2012L02280)

20 Jan 2013 (s 2)

 

Name

Registration

Commencement

Application, saving and transitional provisions

Civil Aviation Legislation Amendment (Part 132) Regulation 2016

28 Oct 2016 (F2016L01655)

Sch 1 (item 41): 28 Jan 2017 (s 2(1) item 1)

Air Services Legislation (Repeal and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2019

25 Mar 2019 (F2019L00372)

Sch 1 (items 23–25): 26 Mar 2019 (s 2(1) item 1)

Transport Safety Investigation Amendment (Rail Transport) Regulations 2019

28 June 2019 (F2019L00922)

1 July 2019 (s 2(1) item 1)

Timor Sea Legislation Amendment (Maritime Boundaries Treaty) Regulations 2019

12 Aug 2019 (F2019L01049)

Sch 1 (item 8): 30 Aug 2019 (s 2(1) item 1)

Civil Aviation Legislation Amendment (Part 139 Aerodromes—Transitional Provisions and Consequential Amendments) Regulations 2020

15 July 2020 (F2020L00913)

Sch 3 (item 37): 13 Aug 2020 (s 2(1) item 3)

 

Endnote 4—Amendment history

 

Provision affected

How affected

Part 1

 

r 1.2....................

rep LA s 48D

r 1.3....................

am F2019L00922

Part 2

 

r 2.2....................

am F2016L01655; F2019L00372

r 2.3....................

am No 149, 2009

r 2.4....................

am No 149, 2009; F2020L00913

r 2.5....................

am No 149, 2009

r 2.5A...................

ad No 149, 2009

r 2.6....................

am No 149, 2009

r 2.7....................

am No 149, 2009

Part 3

 

r 3.3....................

am No 149, 2009

r 3.4....................

am No 149, 2009

r 3.4A...................

ad No 149, 2009

r 3.5....................

rs No 149, 2009

r 3.6....................

am No 149, 2009

Part 4

 

Part 4...................

rs No 263, 2012

r 4.1....................

rs No 263, 2012

r 4.2....................

rs No 263, 2012

 

am F2019L00922

r 4.3....................

am No 149, 2009

 

rs No 263, 2012; F2019L00922

r 4.3A...................

ad F2019L00922

r 4.4....................

am No 149, 2009

 

rs No 263, 2012

 

am F2019L00922

r 4.4A...................

ad No 149, 2009

 

rep No 263, 2012

r 4.5....................

am No 149, 2009

 

rs No 263, 2012

 

am F2019L00922

r 4.6....................

am No 149, 2009

 

rs No 263, 2012; F2019L00922

r 4.7....................

am No 149, 2009

 

rs No 263, 2012; F2019L00922

r 4.8....................

rs No 263, 2012; F2019L00922

r 4.9....................

ad No 263, 2012

 

am F2019L00922

Part 5

 

r 5.1....................

am No 149, 2009

r 5.1A...................

ad No 149, 2009

r 5.2....................

am No 149, 2009

r 5.2A...................

ad No 149, 2009

 

am No 264, 2012

r 5.3....................

am No 149, 2009; F2019L01049

r 5.4A...................

ad No 149, 2009

r 5.6....................

am No 149, 2009

r 5.7....................

am No 149, 2009

r 5.8....................

am No 149, 2009; No 264, 2012

r 5.9....................

am No 149, 2009