1.  Sections 1 to 4 and anything in this instrument not elsewhere covered by this table

The day after this instrument is registered.

25 September 2019

2.  Schedule 1

1 November 2019.

1 November 2019

3.  Schedule 2

1 January 2020.

1 January 2020

Subgroup 5—General practitioner video conferencing consultation attendance for patients in rural and remote areas

2461

Professional attendance by video conference by a general practitioner for an obvious problem characterised by the straightforward nature of the task that requires a short patient history and, if required, limited examination and management—each attendance

17.50

2463

Professional attendance by video conference by a general practitioner, of less than 20 minutes in duration, including any of the following that are clinically relevant:

(a) taking a patient history;

(b) performing a clinical examination;

(c) arranging any necessary investigation;

(d) implementing a management plan;

(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;

for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance

38.20

2464

Professional attendance by video conference by a general practitioner, of at least 20 minutes in duration but less than 40 minutes, including any of the following that are clinically relevant:

(a) taking a patient history;

(b) performing a clinical examination;

(c) arranging any necessary investigation;

(d) implementing a management plan;

(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;

for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance

73.95

2465

Professional attendance by video conference by a general practitioner, of at least 40 minutes in duration, including any of the following that are clinically relevant:

(a) taking a patient history;

(b) performing a clinical examination;

(c) arranging any necessary investigation;

(d) implementing a management plan;

(e) providing appropriate preventive health care;

for one or more health‑related issues, with appropriate documentation—each attendance

108.85

Subgroup 6—Other non‑referred video conferencing consultation attendance for patients in rural and remote areas

2471

Professional attendance by video conference of not more than 5 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner—each attendance

11.00

2472

Professional attendance by video conference of more than 5 minutes in duration but not more than 25 minutes by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner—each attendance

21.00

2475

Professional attendance by video conference of more than 25 minutes in duration but not more than 45 minutes by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner—each attendance

38.00

2478

Professional attendance by video conference of more than 45 minutes in duration by a medical practitioner who is not a general practitioner—each attendance

61.00

61524

Whole body FDG PET study, performed for the staging of locally advanced (Stage III) breast cancer, for a patient who is considered suitable for active therapy (R)

953.00

61525

Whole body FDG PET study, performed for the evaluation of suspected metastatic or suspected locally or regionally recurrent breast carcinoma, for a patient who is considered suitable for active therapy (R)

953.00

63487

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has been diagnosed with metastatic cancer restricted to the regional lymph nodes; and

(ii) clinical examination and conventional imaging have failed to identify the primary cancer (R) (K) (Anaes.)

690.00

63488

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has been diagnosed with metastatic cancer restricted to the regional lymph nodes; and

(ii) clinical examination and conventional imaging have failed to identify the primary cancer (R) (NK) (Anaes.)

345.00

63489

MRI—guided biopsy, if:

(a) the request for the scan identifies that the patient has a suspicious lesion seen on MRI but not on conventional imaging; and

(b) an ultrasound scan of the affected breast, performed immediately before the biopsy, confirms that the lesion is not amenable to biopsy guided by conventional imaging; and

(c) a dedicated breast coil is used (R) (K) (Anaes.)

1440.00

63490

MRI—guided biopsy, if:

(a) the request for the scan identifies that the patient has a suspicious lesion seen on MRI but not on conventional imaging; and

(b) an ultrasound scan of the affected breast, performed immediately before the biopsy, confirms that the lesion is not amenable to biopsy guided by conventional imaging; and

(c) a dedicated breast coil is used (R) (NK) (Anaes.)

720.00

63531

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has a breast lesion; and

(ii) the results of conventional imaging are inconclusive for the presence of breast cancer; and

(iii) biopsy has not been possible (R) (K) (Anaes.) (Contrast)

690.00

63532

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has a breast lesion; and

(ii) the results of conventional imaging are inconclusive for the presence of breast cancer; and

(iii) biopsy has not been possible (R) (NK) (Anaes.) (Contrast)

345.00

63533

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has been diagnosed with a breast cancer; and

(ii) there is a discrepancy between the clinical assessment and the conventional imaging assessment of the extent of the malignancy; and

(c) the results of breast MRI imaging may alter treatment planning (R) (K) (Anaes.) (Contrast)

690.00

63534

MRI—scan of both breasts, if:

(a) a dedicated breast coil is used; and

(b) the request for the scan identifies that:

(i) the patient has been diagnosed with a breast cancer; and

(ii) there is a discrepancy between the clinical assessment and the conventional imaging assessment of the extent of the malignancy; and

(c) the results of breast MRI imaging may alter treatment planning (R) (NK) (Anaes.) (Contrast)

345.00

32222

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, for a patient:

(a) following a positive faecal occult blood test; or

(b) who has symptoms consistent with pathology of the colonic mucosa; or

(c) who has anaemia or iron deficiency; or

(d) for whom diagnostic imaging has shown an abnormality of the colon; or

(e) who is undergoing the first examination following surgery for colorectal cancer; or

(f) who is undergoing pre‑operative evaluation; or

(g) for whom a repeat colonoscopy is required due to inadequate bowel preparation for the patient’s previous colonoscopy; or

(h) for the management of inflammatory bowel disease

Applicable only once on a day under a single episode of anaesthesia or other sedation (Anaes.)

339.70

32223

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, for a patient:

(a) who has had a colonoscopy that revealed 1 to 4 adenomas, each of which was less than 10 mm in diameter, had no villous features and had no high grade dysplasia; or

(b) who has a moderate risk of colorectal cancer due to family history; or

(c) who has a history of colorectal cancer and has had an initial post‑operative colonoscopy that did not reveal any adenomas or colorectal cancer

Applicable only once in any 5‑year period (Anaes.)

339.70

32224

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, for a patient who has a moderate risk of colorectal cancer due to:

(a) a history of adenomas, including an adenoma that:

(i) was greater than 10 mm in diameter; or

(ii) had villous features; or

(iii) had high grade dysplasia; or

(iv) was an advanced serrated adenoma; or

(b) having had a previous colonoscopy that revealed 5 to 9 adenomas, each of which was less than 10 mm in diameter, had no villous features and had no high grade dysplasia

Applicable only once in any 3‑year period (Anaes.)

339.70

32225

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, for a patient who has a high risk of colorectal cancer due to having had a previous colonoscopy that:

(a) revealed 10 or more adenomas; or

(b) included a piecemeal, or possibly incomplete, excision of a large, sessile polyp

Applicable not more than 4 times in any 12‑month period (Anaes.)

339.70

32226

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, for a patient who has a high risk of colorectal cancer due to:

(a) a known or suspected familial condition, such as familial adenomatous polyposis, Lynch syndrome or serrated polyposis syndrome; or

(b) a genetic mutation associated with hereditary colorectal cancer

Applicable only once in any 12‑month period (Anaes.)

339.70

32227

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy:

(a) for the treatment of bleeding, including one or more of the following:

(i) radiation proctitis;

(ii) angioectasia;

(iii) post‑polypectomy bleeding; or

(b) for the treatment of colonic strictures with balloon dilatation

Applicable only once on a day under a single episode of anaesthesia or other sedation (Anaes.)

476.70

32228

Endoscopic examination of the colon to the caecum by colonoscopy, other than a service to which item 32222, 32223, 32224, 32225 or 32226 applies

Applicable only once (Anaes.)

339.70

32229

Removal of one or more polyps during colonoscopy, in association with a service to which item 32222, 32223, 32224, 32225, 32226 or 32228 applies (Anaes.)

274.00

18297

Assistance at the administration of an epidural blood patch (a service to which item 18233 applies) by another medical practitioner

60.30

20745

Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for either or both of the following:

(a) upper gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures in association with acute gastrointestinal haemorrhage;

(b) endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

140.70

20750

Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for hernia repairs to the upper abdominal wall, other than a service to which another item in this Subgroup applies

100.50

20790

Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for procedures within the peritoneal cavity in the upper abdomen, including any of the following:

(a) open cholecystectomy;

(b) gastrectomy;

(c) laparoscopic assisted nephrectomy;

(d) bowel shunts

160.80

21952

Initiation of the management of anaesthesia for diagnostic muscle biopsy to assess for malignant hyperpyrexia

80.40

22012

Monitoring that:

(a) is of one of the following types of blood pressure:

(i) central venous blood pressure;

(ii) pulmonary arterial blood pressure;

(iii) systemic arterial blood pressure;

(iv) cardiac intracavity blood pressure; and

(b) is conducted by indwelling catheter; and

(c) is performed in association with the administration of anaesthesia for a procedure and not as a service to which item 13876 applies; and

(d) is performed, on a day, on a patient who:

(i) is categorised as having a high risk of complications; or

(ii) during the procedure develops either complications or a high risk of complications; and

(e) has not previously been performed in those circumstances on the day on the patient for that type of blood pressure

60.30

22014

Monitoring that:

(a) is of one of the following types of blood pressure:

(i) central venous blood pressure;

(ii) pulmonary arterial blood pressure;

(iii) systemic arterial blood pressure;

(iv) cardiac intracavity blood pressure; and

(b) is conducted by indwelling catheter; and

(c) is performed in association with the administration of anaesthesia for a procedure (the current procedure) and not as a service to which item 13876 applies; and

(d) is performed, on a day, on a patient:

(i) who is categorised as having a high risk of complications or develops during the current procedure either complications or a high risk of complications; and

(ii) for whom monitoring of that type of blood pressure to which item 22012 applies has already been performed on the day in association with the administration of anaesthesia for another discrete procedure; and

(e) has not previously been performed in association with the current procedure for that type of blood pressure

60.30

22025

Intra‑arterial cannulation when performed in association with the management of anaesthesia for a procedure for a patient who:

(a) is categorised as having a high risk of complications; or

(b) develops a high risk of complications during the procedure

80.40

22041

Introduction of a plexus or nerve block proximal to the lower leg or forearm, perioperatively performed in the induction room, theatre or recovery room, for post‑operative pain management

40.20

22042

Introduction of a regional or field nerve block performed via retrobulbar, peribulbar or sub‑Tenon’s block injection of an anaesthetic agent, or other complex eye block, when administered by an anaesthetist perioperatively

20.10

23025

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 15 minutes but not more than 30 minutes

40.20

23035

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 30 minutes but not more than 45 minutes

60.30

23045

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 45 minutes but not more than 1 hour

80.40

23055

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1 hour but not more than 1:15 hours

100.50

23065

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:15 hours but not more than 1:30 hours

120.60

23075

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:30 hours but not more than 1:45 hours

140.70

23085

Anaesthesia, perfusion or assistance, if the service time is more than 1:45 hours but not more than 2:00 hours

160.80

(b) a Group A1 disqualified general practitioner

(a) any of the following subparagraphs applies:

(i) there has been a recurrence of symptoms not explained by known or identifiable factors such as inadequate usage of treatment, sleep duration or significant recent illness;

(ii) there has been a significant change in weight or changes in co‑morbid conditions that could affect sleep‑related breathing disorders, and other means of assessing treatment efficacy (including review of data stored by a therapy device used by the patient) are unavailable or have been equivocal;

(iii) the patient has undergone a therapeutic intervention (including, but not limited to, positive airway pressure, upper airway surgery, positional therapy, appropriate oral appliance, weight loss of more than 10% in the previous 6 months or oxygen therapy), and there is either clinical evidence of sub‑optimal response or uncertainty about control of sleep‑disordered breathing; and

41501

Examination of glottal cycles and vibratory characteristics of the vocal folds, by a specialist in the practice of the specialist’s specialty of otolaryngology, using videostroboscopy (capturing audio, video, frequency and intensity), for confirmation of diagnosis, or for confirmation of treatment effectiveness where there is failure to progress or respond as expected, for:

(a) dysphonia, if non‑stroboscopic techniques of visualising the larynx have failed to identify any frank abnormality of the vocal folds; or

(b) benign vocal fold lesions; or

(c) premalignant or malignant laryngeal lesions; or

(d) vocal fold motion impairment or glottal insufficiency; or

(e) evaluation of vocal fold function after treatment or phonosurgery;

other than a service associated with a service to which item 41764 applies, or a service associated with the administration of a general anaesthetic

188.55

45626

Ectropion or entropion (due to causes other than trachoma), correction of (unilateral) (Anaes.)

331.25

45627

Ectropion or entropion (due to trachoma), correction of (unilateral) (Anaes.)

331.25

51051

Pedicle subtraction osteotomy, one vertebra, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51052, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.)

1,879.60

51052

Pedicle subtraction osteotomy, 2 vertebrae, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51051, 51053, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.)

2,286.00

51053

Vertebral column resection osteotomy performed through single posterior approach, one vertebra, not being a service associated with a service to which item 51051, 51052, 51054, 51055, 51056, 51057, 51058 or 51059 applies (H) (Anaes.) (Assist.)

2,600.95

28B

A36

90250, 90251, 90252, 90253, 90254, 90255, 90256, 90257, 90264, 90265, 90271, 90272, 90273, 90274, 90275, 90276, 90277, 90278, 90279, 90280, 90281, 90282